National (NLUs)LL.M Entrance (120 Marks)-0.25 Negative Marking

CLAT PG / LL.M Entrance Mock Test: 120 MCQ Test Series & Precedents

Advanced comprehension, constitutional bench doctrine, and legal reasoning questions for CLAT PG, AILET LL.M, and PSU legal recruitment with 0.25 negative marking.

Practice Mock Tests for CLAT LL.M

Select a full paper simulation (120 Qs), half-length mock (60 Qs), or speed drill (30 Qs).

Sample Practice Questions with Bare Act Solutions

15 representative questions tailored for CLAT LL.M. Expand any question to view the statutory answer and Bare Act explanation.

Q1Constitutional Law
Importantarticle-13-1medium

A law abridging fundamental rights is not a nullity. It only remains inoperative till the shadow of fundamental rights falls over it. This doctrine is known as—

ADoctrine of pith and substance
BDoctrine of eclipse
CDoctrine of severability
DDoctrine of pleasure
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

Under the Doctrine of Eclipse (Bhikaji Narain Dhakras v. State of M.P.), pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with fundamental rights become dormant/eclipsed, rather than void ab initio.

Q2Constitutional Law
Very Importantarticle-20-2medium

The legal maxim and principle of "Autrefois Acquit" and "Autrefois Convict" is related to which fundamental right?

ARetrospective-operators
BDouble Jeopardy (Article 20(2))
CEx Post Facto Law
DSelf-incrimination
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

Autrefois acquit (formerly acquitted) and autrefois convict (formerly convicted) are common law pleas embodied in Article 20(2) against double jeopardy.

Q3Constitutional Law
Importantarticle-20-3medium

Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression. Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. Choose the correct code:

ABoth 'A' and 'R' are true
BBoth 'A' and 'R' are false
C'A' is false but 'R' is true
DNone of these
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option CStatutory Reference

In State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad (1961), SC held taking thumb impressions, handwriting samples, or specimen signatures does not violate Art 20(3) as it is not 'being a witness against self'.

Q4Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
introductionhistoryeasy

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) replaces which earlier legislation?

AIndian Penal Code, 1860
BCode of Criminal Procedure, 1973
CIndian Evidence Act, 1872
DIndian Contract Act, 1872
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option AStatutory Reference

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS) replaces the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC). It was passed by Parliament and received Presidential assent on 25 December 2023. The CrPC was replaced by BNSS and the Evidence Act by BSA.

Q5Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
general-exceptionsage-of-responsibilityeasy

Under BNS, what is the minimum age of criminal responsibility?

A5 years
B7 years
C10 years
D12 years
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

Under Section 15 of BNS (similar to Section 82 of IPC), nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age. The age of criminal responsibility remains at 7 years, continuing the earlier IPC provision.

Q6Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
murderoffences-bodymedium

Section 101 of BNS deals with which offence?

ATheft
BMurder
CCulpable Homicide not amounting to Murder
DKidnapping
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

Section 101 of BNS defines murder, corresponding to Section 300 of the erstwhile IPC. The punishment for murder under Section 103 of BNS includes death, imprisonment for life, and fine.

Q7Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
procedural-lawbnss-introductioneasy

What is the principal legislation governing the procedural administration of substantive criminal law in India?

ABharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (No. 45 of 2023)
BBharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (No. 46 of 2023)
CBharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (No. 47 of 2023)
DBoth (a) and (b) above
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) serves as the primary procedural law for administering substantive criminal law in India, replacing the old Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

Q8Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
concurrent-listconstitutional-schememedium

Under the Constitution of India, the procedure for the administration of substantive criminal law falls under which legislative list?

AState List
BConcurrent List
CUnion List
DResiduary List
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

Criminal procedure is enumerated under List III (Concurrent List) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, empowering both Parliament and State legislatures to enact laws on it.

Q9Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
legislative-competenceparliament-authoritymedium

Who possesses the authority to amend the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

AParliament or any State Legislature
BThe Parliament only
CThe Supreme Court and Parliament
DState legislature only
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

Since criminal procedure falls within the Concurrent List, Parliament holds primary legislative competence, though state amendments can also be made subject to Article 254 of the Constitution. However, the correct option provided in the source answer key is (b).

Q10Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
lex-forijurisdictioneasy

The Law of Evidence is characterized as:-

ALex Tellienis
BLex Fori
CLex Loci
DLex Situs
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

The Law of Evidence is 'Lex Fori' (law of the forum or the court in which the case is tried). Questions of evidence are governed by the law of the place where the trial is held.

Q11Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
lex-forieasy

The law of evidence is fundamentally categorized as:-

Alex fori
Blex posterior
Clex specialis derogate legi generali
DNone of these options
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option AStatutory Reference

Since evidence regulates the mode of trial, it is a matter of procedure and falls under 'lex fori'. (The book answer key lists option A).

Q12Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
exhaustivenesscpc-relationshipmedium

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is not exhaustive. Many rules relating to the law of evidence are also contained in which of the following?

ACode of Civil Procedure, 1908
BTransfer of Property Act, 1882
CIndian Succession Act, 1925
DAll the above
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option AStatutory Reference

While the BSA contains the primary rules of evidence, procedural codes like the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 also contain relevant rules regarding the production of evidence and examination of witnesses. (The book answer key lists option A).

Q13Indian Contract Act
Very ImportantSection 62easy

Under Section 62 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, 'Novation' of a contract means:

ACancellation of contract
BAlteration of terms of contract
CRenewal of original contract
DSubstitution of a new contract in place of original contract
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option DStatutory Reference

Novation means substituting a new contract for the original one, either between the same parties or between new parties.

Q14Indian Contract Act
Very ImportantSection 56 Illustration (a)easy

A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic. Under Section 56 para 1 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, this agreement is:

AVoid ab initio
BVoidable
CEnforceable
DValid and enforceable in Bengal
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option AStatutory Reference

Section 56 Illustration (a) establishes that an agreement to do an act impossible in itself (like discovering treasure by magic) is void.

Q15Indian Contract Act
Very ImportantSatyabrata Ghoseeasy

Which of the following cases is related to the 'doctrine of frustration' under Section 56?

AFelt House v. Bindly
BHardley v. Baxandale
CSatyabrata Ghosh v. Mugneeram
DSeth Mohanlal v. Grain Chambers
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option CStatutory Reference

Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. (AIR 1954 SC 44) is the classic Indian authority on Section 56 frustration.

Official Exam Guide

CLAT PG / LL.M Entrance: Exam Pattern & Preparation Strategy

The Consortium of National Law Universities conducts the Common Law Admission Test for Post-Graduation (CLAT PG) for admission to LL.M programs across National Law Universities in India. The examination consists of a single objective paper containing 120 multiple-choice questions for 120 marks, conducted over 2 hours (120 minutes). Negative marking of 0.25 marks applies to each incorrect answer. CLAT PG scores also serve as the qualification benchmark for legal recruitment in prominent Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).

The CLAT PG format differs from conventional judicial exams. The paper is entirely passage-based. Candidates are presented with extracts of 400 to 450 words drawn from landmark and recent judgments of the Supreme Court of India, significant statutory enactments, and international law developments. Each passage is followed by a series of objective questions evaluating both direct comprehension and underlying legal doctrines.

Constitutional Law and Jurisprudence form the core of CLAT PG, historically accounting for over 50% of the questions. Candidates are tested on evolving constitutional doctrines, including basic structure evolution, transformative constitutionalism, privacy jurisprudence, horizontal application of fundamental rights, and standards of judicial review. Jurisprudence questions assess foundational concepts: analytical positivism, natural law theory, theories of justice, ownership, possession, and legal personality. The remainder of the paper tests Criminal Law, Law of Contract, Torts, and Public International Law.

Succeeding in CLAT PG requires rapid reading comprehension and a thorough grasp of constitutional bench judgments from the past five years. Candidates should practice passage-based drills to quickly extract legal issues, identify concurring or dissenting opinions, and navigate the 0.25 negative marking penalty.

Frequently Asked Questions — CLAT LL.M

What is the structure of CLAT PG / LL.M Entrance Examination?

CLAT PG consists of 120 objective questions worth 120 marks conducted over 2 hours (120 minutes). A negative marking penalty of 0.25 marks applies to each wrong answer.

How are questions presented in CLAT PG?

CLAT PG is entirely passage-based. Candidates read extracts of 400 to 450 words from landmark Supreme Court judgments or statutes, followed by objective questions testing legal doctrines and comprehension.

Which subjects dominate the CLAT PG question paper?

Constitutional Law and Jurisprudence represent over 50% of the examination. The remaining questions test Law of Contract, Criminal Law, International Law, and Torts.

Can I use CLAT PG scores for PSU recruitment?

Yes. Top Public Sector Undertakings (such as ONGC, IOCL, BHEL, and NTPC) recruit legal officers directly based on CLAT PG scores and ranks.