Madhya PradeshLaw Segment (110 Marks)No Negative Marking

MP Judicial Service (MPJS) Mock Test: 110 Law MCQ Prelims Test Series

Direct Bare Act section drills, limitation rules, and statutory exceptions for Madhya Pradesh Civil Judge Preliminary online examination. High-scoring tests without negative marking.

Practice Mock Tests for MP Judiciary

Select a full prelims simulation (150 Qs), 110-question law special, speed drill (50 Qs), or daily sprint (25 Qs).

Sample Practice Questions with Bare Act Solutions

15 representative questions tailored for MP Judiciary. Expand any question to view the statutory answer and Bare Act explanation.

Q1Constitutional Law
Importantarticle-13-1medium

A law abridging fundamental rights is not a nullity. It only remains inoperative till the shadow of fundamental rights falls over it. This doctrine is known as—

ADoctrine of pith and substance
BDoctrine of eclipse
CDoctrine of severability
DDoctrine of pleasure
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

Under the Doctrine of Eclipse (Bhikaji Narain Dhakras v. State of M.P.), pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with fundamental rights become dormant/eclipsed, rather than void ab initio.

Q2Constitutional Law
Very Importantarticle-14medium

Given below are Assertion (A) and Reason (R): Assertion (A): The principal of equality before law means that there should be equality of treatment under equal circumstances. Reason (R): All persons are not equal by nature, attainment or circumstances. Choose the correct code:

ABoth (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is a correct explanation of (A)
BBoth (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C(A) is true but (R) is false
D(A) is false but (R) is true
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option AStatutory Reference

Because individuals are placed in differing circumstances, equal treatment applies to equals, justifying reasonable classification.

Q3Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
section-7rigorous-and-simplemedium

X administers a poison to Y, with the intent to cause hurt to Y. X is found guilty and is sentenced to imprisonment of 7 years. Which of the following is true about the nature of imprisonment that may be imposed on him?

AX must be sentenced to 7 years rigorous imprisonment.
BX must be sentenced to 7 years simple imprisonment.
CX may be sentenced to either 7 years simple imprisonment or 7 years rigorous imprisonment but the judge must at the time of sentencing decide the nature of imprisonment.
DX may be sentenced to any combination of years to be served as partly rigorous and partly simple imprisonment
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option DStatutory Reference

Section 7 BNS (old Sec 60 IPC) allows the court discretion to direct that imprisonment be wholly rigorous, wholly simple, or that any part of such term shall be rigorous and the rest simple.

Q4Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
section-8-4description-of-imprisonmentmedium

Under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the imprisonment, which the Court imposes in default of payment of fine or in default of community service, may be of the following description :-

Aonly simple
Brigorous
Cof either description
Ddepends on the quantum of fine
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option CStatutory Reference

Under Section 8(4) BNS (old Sec 66 IPC), default imprisonment may be of any description (rigorous or simple) with which the offender might have been sentenced for the substantive offence.

Q5Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
legislative-competenceparliament-authoritymedium

Who possesses the authority to amend the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

AParliament or any State Legislature
BThe Parliament only
CThe Supreme Court and Parliament
DState legislature only
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

Since criminal procedure falls within the Concurrent List, Parliament holds primary legislative competence, though state amendments can also be made subject to Article 254 of the Constitution. However, the correct option provided in the source answer key is (b).

Q6Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
section-2-1-hcomplaint-formeasy

In what form can a "complaint" be submitted under Section 2(1)(h) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

AIn writing only
BOral only
CEither in writing or oral
DBy gestures
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option CStatutory Reference

Section 2(1)(h) allows a complaint to be made either orally or in writing to a magistrate with the intent of invoking penal action against an offender.

Q7Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
section-1judicial-proceedingseasy

The provisions of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 apply to:-

AProceedings before an arbitrator
BDepartmental proceedings
CJudicial proceedings before courts
DNone of the above
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option CStatutory Reference

Under Section 1 of the BSA, 2023, the Act applies strictly to 'judicial proceedings in or before any Court'. It does not apply to arbitration or departmental trials.

Q8Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
judicial-proceeding-definitionjural-relationhard

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the scope of the BSA, 2023?

AThe Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 applies to affidavits
BThe Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 applies to a proceeding whose object is to determine a jural relation between one person and another
CThe Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 applies to arbitration proceedings
DThe Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 applies to departmental proceedings
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

A judicial proceeding is defined as a proceeding where the object is to determine a jural relation (rights and liabilities) between parties. The BSA applies to such proceedings, but excludes affidavits, arbitration, and departmental trials. (The book answer key lists option B).

Q9Indian Contract Act
Very ImportantSection 18medium

A representation made without knowing it to be false, but honestly believing it to be true, does not amount to fraud. In law, this is classified as:

ACoercion
BActive concealment
CUndue Influence
DInnocent Misrepresentation
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option DStatutory Reference

Under Section 18(1), positive assertion of that which is not true, though believed to be true, is misrepresentation, not fraud.

Q10Indian Contract Act
ImportantSection 17 Explanationmedium

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, mere silence does NOT amount to fraud unless:

AThere is a duty to speak (fiduciary relationship)
BThe silence itself is equivalent to speech
CThere is a change in circumstances that makes previously true statements false
DAll of the above
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option DStatutory Reference

Section 17 Explanation provides that silence is not fraud unless there is a duty to speak, or silence is equivalent to speech, or change of facts occurs.

Q11Transfer of Property Act
Immovable PropertyJudicial Interpretationmedium

Which of the following rights has NOT been judicially recognized as an "immovable property" under the Law of Transfer of Property?

ARight of way
BRight to collect rent of immovable property
CRight of worship
DRight to fishery
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option CStatutory Reference

Judicial decisions have recognized rights such as the right of way, right to collect rent, and right to fishery as immovable property because they are benefits arising out of land. In contrast, a personal right of worship is classified as a personal privilege or movable right.

Q12Transfer of Property Act
Judgment in PersonamTitle Adjudicationmedium

A judgment in a civil suit between A and B holding that A purchased an immovable property from B is classified as what type of judgment?

AJudgment in personam
BJudgment in rem
CNeither in rem nor in personam
DJudgment binding on all third parties
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option AStatutory Reference

A adjudication of title or ownership between private parties in a suit for property is a judgment *in personam*, binding only on the parties to the suit and their privies, unlike judgments in probate, insolvency, or matrimonial jurisdiction which are *in rem*.

Q13Transfer of Property Act
Equity of RedemptionHutmedium

Which of the following are recognized as "immovable property" under the law of transfer of property? 1. Equity of redemption 2. A hut imbedded in earth

A1 only
BBoth 1 and 2
C2 only
DNeither 1 nor 2
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

An equity of redemption is an intangible immovable property right attached to land. A hut imbedded in the earth is attached to the earth and constitutes tangible immovable property. Thus both 1 and 2 are immovable property.

Q14Transfer of Property Act
ElectionSection 35hard

Under Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (Election), under what circumstances must compensation be given to a disappointed transferee when the owner dissents from the transfer?

AWhere transfer is gratuitous and transferor dies or becomes incapable before election
BWhere transfer is for consideration
CIn both (a) and (b)
DCompensation is never payable under Section 35
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option CStatutory Reference

Section 35 provides that where an owner elects against the transfer, compensation must be paid to the disappointed transferee (1) in all cases where transfer is for consideration, and (2) in gratuitous transfers where transferor died or became incapable before election.

Q15Transfer of Property Act
ImprovementsSection 51medium

Under Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a transferee who makes improvements on property in good faith believing himself to be entitled thereto:

AIs not entitled to the value of improvements
BIs entitled to have the value of improvements estimated and paid or secured
CHas conditional entitlement
DNone of the above
Show Correct Answer & Statutory Rationale
Correct: Option BStatutory Reference

Section 51 provides that a transferee in good faith under defective title who makes improvements is entitled to either have the value of improvements estimated and paid by the evictor or require the evictor to sell his interest.

Official Exam Guide

MP Judicial Service (MPJS) Prelims: Exam Pattern & Strategy

The High Court of Madhya Pradesh conducts the MP Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination as a computer-based online test. The examination consists of a single paper containing 150 multiple-choice questions for 150 marks, with a total duration of 2 hours (120 minutes). A critical feature of MPJS Prelims is that there is no negative marking. Because incorrect answers do not attract penalties, the competitive cutoff scores are among the highest in the country, routinely exceeding 115 to 125 marks out of 150 for unreserved categories.

The examination allocates 110 marks to Law subjects and 40 marks to non-law sections (20 marks for General Knowledge, 10 marks for Computer Awareness, and 10 marks for English). The 110-mark law component spans twelve distinct enactments, including the Constitution of India, Code of Civil Procedure, Transfer of Property Act, Indian Contract Act, Specific Relief Act, Limitation Act, MP Accommodation Control Act, MP Land Revenue Code, Indian Penal Code / BNS, Code of Criminal Procedure / BNSS, Indian Evidence Act / BSA, and the Negotiable Instruments Act.

The questioning style in MPJS is direct and section-oriented. Questions test exact section numbers, monetary limits, limitation schedules, and statutory illustrations directly from the Bare Act. For instance, in the Transfer of Property Act and Indian Contract Act, candidates are tested on statutory definition clauses, section numbers for specific mortgage types, and standard contract exceptions.

Given the absence of negative marking, candidates must attempt all 150 questions. Preparation should emphasize rapid section lookup, flashcard revision of Bare Act titles, and memorizing local act provisions to secure maximum marks on the 110-mark law paper.

Frequently Asked Questions — MP Judiciary

What is the pattern of MP Civil Judge (MPJS) Preliminary Examination?

MP Civil Judge Prelims is a single online computer-based paper comprising 150 multiple-choice questions for 150 marks with a duration of 2 hours (120 minutes). Law subjects carry 110 marks, while General Knowledge, Computer, and English carry 40 marks.

Is there negative marking in MP Judicial Service Prelims?

No. MP Judicial Service Prelims has no negative marking. Candidates can attempt all 150 questions without risk of penalty, which results in high competitive cutoffs (typically 115 to 125+ marks).

What type of legal questions are asked in MPJS Prelims?

MPJS questions are direct, section-oriented, and Bare Act based. Questions frequently test exact section numbers, statutory definitions, limitation periods, and standard illustrations.

Can I take a 110-question Law Segment mock test for MPJS?

Yes. LegalMCQ provides a specialized 110-question Law Segment preset that exactly simulates the legal portion of the MP Civil Judge preliminary examination.